湖州市2020
学年第二学期期末调研测试卷
高一英语
本试卷分第
I
卷（选择题）和第
II
卷（非选择题）。第
I
卷
1
至
8
页，第
II
卷
9
至
10
页。满分
150
分。考试时间
120
分钟。
注意事项：
第
I
卷
1.答第
I
卷时,
考生务必用
2B
铅笔按“正确涂写”要求涂写答题卡。
2.每小题选出答案后,
用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,
用橡皮擦
干净后,
再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在试卷上。
3.考试结束,
考生将答题卡交回。
第一部分：听力（共两节,
满分
30
分）
第一节
(共
5
小题；每小题
1.5
分，满分
7.5
分)
听下面
5
段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的
A、B、C
三个选项中选出
最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有
10
秒钟的时间来回答有关
小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
What
does
the
man
think
about
exercising
at
the
gym?
Tiring.
B.
Useless.
C.
Embarrassing.
Why
is
the
man
sneezing?
Because
of
the
trees.
Because
of
his
cold.
Because
of
the
dust.
What
does
the
man’s
grandfather
do
now?
He
writes
books.
He
sells
watches.
He
makes
watches.
When
will
the
speakers
start
their
vacation?
On
June
9th.
On
June
12th.
On
June
13th.
What
are
the
speakers
mainly
talking
about?
Which
animal
to
ride.
How
to
look
after
a
pet.
Where
to
spend
their
holiday.
第二节
(共
15
小题；每小题
1.5
分,
满分
22.5
分)
听下面
5
段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,
从题中所给的
A、B、C
三个
选项中选出最佳选项,
并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,
你将有时间阅读各
个小题,
每小题
5
秒钟；听完后,
各小题将给出
5
秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两
遍。
听第
6
段材料，回答第
6
至
7
题。
Which
movie
is
playing
at
the
theater?
The
Grandmaster.
B.
The
New
Mutants.
C.
Shadow.
What
kind
of
movie
is
The
Grandmaster?
A
comedy.
A
horror
movie.
An
action
movie.
听第
7
段材料，回答第
8
至
10
题。
What’s
the
relationship
between
the
speakers?
Brother
and
sister.
Father
and
daughter.
Salesman
and
customer.
How
much
does
the
woman
have
now?
A.
$50.
B.
$100.
C.
$150.
Where
does
the
conversation
take
place?
At
a
bank.
At
a
coffee
shop.
At
a
clothing
store.
听第
8
段材料，回答第
11
至
13
题。
Who
is
going
to
China?
The
man.
B.
The
woman.
C.
The
man’s
sister.
How
many
people
use
WhatsApp
now?
Over
half
a
billion.
Over
one
billion.
Over
one
and
a
half
billion.
What
messaging
service
do
Blake
and
Allison
use?
WhatsApp.
B.
WeChat.
C.
Telegram.
听第
9
段材料，回答第
14
至
17
题。
Where
is
the
woman’s
class
now?
At
a
factory.
At
a
glass
shop.
At
a
neighborhood
center.
What
did
people
use
glass
for
a
long
time
ago?
Making
tools.
Making
windows.
Making
medical
equipment.
Who
buy
glass
items
the
most
probably
in
ancient
times?
Anybody.
B.
The
rich.
C.
The
poor.
What
does
the
woman
want
to
make?
A
cup.
B.
Eyeglasses.
C.
A
flower
vase.
听第
10
段材料，回答第
18
至
20
题。
Where
does
the
speech
take
place?
At
a
factory.
At
a
university.
At
a
technology
company.
What
does
the
speaker
think
about
the
future?
Fewer
people
will
lose
their
jobs.
People
will
have
jobs
that
robots
can’t
do.
Technology
will
be
the
top
university
major.
How
are
computers
better
than
people
according
to
the
speaker?
They
can
do
math
faster.
They
don’t
take
breaks.
They’re
more
creative.
第二部分：阅读理解
(共两节，满分
35
分)
第一节（共
10
小题；每小题
2.5
分，满分
25
分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的
A、B、C
和
D
四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题
卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Last
summer,
Katie
Steller
pulled
off
the
freeway
on
her
way
to
work
in
Minneapolis.
She
stopped
at
a
traffic
light,
where
a
man
was
sitting
with
a
sign
asking
for
help.
She
rolled
down
her
window
and
shouted.
“Hey.
I’m
driving
around
giving
free
haircuts.
Do
you
want
one
right
now?”
The
man
laughed,
then
paused.
“Actually,”
he
said,
“I
was
really
hoping
to
get
a
haircut.”
Steller
pulled
out
a
red
chair
from
her
car
and
helped
the
man
cut
his
hair
immediately.
After
the
work
was
done,
the
man
looked
in
a
mirror.
“I
look
good!”
he
said.
Up
to
now,
Steller
has
given
30
or
so
such
haircuts
around
the
city
to
people
with
little
influence,
and
she
is
strongly
aware
of
the
power
of
her
cleanup
job.
As
a
teen,
she
suffered
from
a
severe
disease,
causing
her
hair
to
get
thinned,
so
her
mother
arranged
for
Steller’s
first
professional
haircut.
“To
sit
down
and
have
somebody
look
at
me
and
talk
to
me
like
a
person
and
not
just
an
illness,
it
helped
me
feel
cared
about
and
less
alone,”
she
says.
After
that,
Steller
knew
she
wanted
to
have
her
own
barbershop
so
she
could
help
people
feel
the
way
she’d
felt
that
day.
Not
long
after
finishing
cosmetology（美容术）school
in
2009,
she
began
what
she
now
calls
her
Red
Chair
Project,
reaching
out
to
people
on
the
streets.
Her
aim
was
that
by
doing
some
kind
acts,
others
would
be
inspired
to
spread
their
own.
“Part
of
what
broke
my
heart
was
just
how
lonely
people
looked,”
she
said.
“I
thought
maybe
I’d
go
around
and
ask
if
people
want
free
haircuts.
I
can’t
fix
their
problems,
but
maybe
I
can
help
them
feel
less
alone
for
a
moment.”
It
all
began
with
a
belief
in
simple
acts
of
kindness,
such
as
a
free
haircut.
“The
way
you
show
up
in
the
world
matters,”said
Steller.
“You
have
no
idea
what
people
are
going
to
do
with
the
kindness
that
you
give
them.”
How
does
the
writer
begin
the
passage?
By
making
a
comparison.
B.
By
giving
a
reason.
C.
By
raising
a
question.
D.
By
describing
a
scene.
What
made
Stellar
start
the
Red
Chair
Project?
Her
mother’s
love
for
her.
B.
Her
interest
in
cosmetology.
C.
Her
care
for
those
in
need.
D.
Her
wish
to
fight
severe
diseases.
What
did
Stellar
expect
from
the
project?
To
spread
kindness.
To
solve
social
problems.
To
deal
with
relationships.
To
make
people
look
smarter.
B
From
Mozart
to
Metallica,
tons
of
people
enjoy
listening
to
various
types
of
music
while
they
paint,
write,
or
draw.
Most
believe
that
music
helps
increase
creativity,
but
an
international
study
conducted
by
English
and
Swedish
researchers
is
challenging
that
view.
The
study
results
were
echoed
by
scientists
from
Lancaster
University,
and
the
University
of
Gavle,
saying
their
findings
show
music
actually
weakens
creativity.
To
reach
their
conclusions,
researchers
had
volunteers
complete
verbal(
言
语
)
problems
designed
to
inspire
creativity
while
sitting
in
a
quiet
room,
and
then
again
while
music
played
in
the
background.
They
found
that
background
music
significantly
weakened
the
volunteers’
ability
to
complete
tasks
connected
with
verbal
creativity.
The
team
also
tested
background
noises
like
those
commonly
heard
in
a
library,
but
found
that
such
noises
had
no
influence
on
subjects’
creativity.
The
tasks
were
simple
word
games.
For
example,
volunteers
were
given
three
words,
such
as
dress,
rise,
and
flower.
Then,
they
were
asked
to
find
a
single
word
connected
with
all
three
that
could
be
combined
to
form
a
common
phrase
or
word.
The
single
word,
in
this
case,
would
be
“sun”
(sundress,
sunrise,
sunflower).
Volunteers
completed
the
tasks
in
either
a
quiet
room,
or
while
listening
to
two
different
types
of
music:
rock
music
or
light
music
“We
found
strong
evidence
of
weakened
performance
when
playing
background
music
in
comparison
to
quiet
background
conditions,”
says
co-author
D.
Neil
McLatchie
of
Lancaster
University.
He
and
his
colleagues
find
that
music
negatively
influences
the
verbal
working
memory
processes
of
the
brain,
preventing
creativity.
Also,
as
far
as
the
library
background
noises
having
seemingly
no
effect,
the
study’s
authors
believe
that
was
the
case
because
library
noises
create
a
“regular
state”
environment
that
doesn’t
affect
concentration.
“To
conclude,
the
findings
here
challenge
the
popular
view
that
music
increases
creativity,
and
instead
show
that
music,
whatever
type
it
is,
is
always
a
disadvantage
for
creative
performance
in
problem
solving,”
the
study
reads.
The
underlined
word
in
Paragraph1
can
be
replaced
by
.
challenged
B.
accepted
C.
doubted
D.
heard
What
were
the
volunteers
asked
to
do
in
the
study?
To
play
music.
B.
To
combine
given
words.
C.
To
create
new
words.
D.
To
connect
words
with
music.
What
can
we
infer
from
the
study?
Quiet
background
inspires
creativity
best.
Library
noise
does
no
harm
to
creativity.
Music
has
a
bad
effect
on
language
ability.
Music
types
matter
in
creative
performance.
Which
is
the
main
idea
of
the
passage?
Quiet
Environments
Prevent
Concentration.
Background
Noise
Affects
Concentration.
Composing
Music
Weakens
Creativity.
Listening
to
Music
Reduces
Creativity.
C
In
the
age
of
social
distancing,
using
robots
for
some
health
care
interactions
is
a
promising
way
to
reduce
in-person
contact
between
health
care
workers
and
sick
patients.
However,
a
key
question
is
how
patients
will
react
to
a
robot
entering
the
room.
Researchers
from
MIT
and
Brigham
and
Women’s
Hospital
recently
set
out
to
answer
that
question.
In
a
study,
the
team
found
that
a
large
majority
of
patients
reported
that
interacting
with
a
health
care
provider
through
a
video
screen
fixed
on
a
robot
was
similar
to
an
in-person
interaction
with
a
health
care
worker.
“We’re
working
on
robots
that
can
help
provide
care
to
ensure
the
safety
of
the
patient
and
the
health
care
workforce.
The
results
of
this
study
give
us
some
confidence
that
people
are
ready
and
willing
to
join
us.
In
a
larger
online
survey
carried
out
nationwide,
we
also
found
that
a
majority
of
respondents
were
open
to
having
robots
perform
small
tasks
such
as
taking
a
nose
swab
(拭子).”
says
Giovanni
Traverso，an
MIT
assistant
professor
and
the
senior
author
of
the
study.
After
the
COVID-19
pandemic
began
early
last
year,Traverso
and
his
colleagues
turned
their
attention
toward
new
strategies
to
reduce
interactions
between
potentially
sick
patients
and
health
care
workers.
To
that
end,
they
created
a
mobile
robot
that
could
interact
with
patients
as
they
waited
in
the
emergency
department.
The
robots
were
equipped
with
sensors
that
allow
them
to
measure
vital
signs,
including
skin
temperature,
breathing
rate,
and
pulse(
脉搏)
rate.
The
robots
also
carried
an
iPad
for
remote
video
communication
with
a
health
care
provider.
The
study
suggests
that
it
could
be
worthwhile
to
develop
robots
that
can
perform
tasks
that
currently
require
a
lot
of
human
effort,
such
as
turning
a
patient
over
in
bed.
These
days,
turning
COVID-19
patients
onto
their
stomachs
requires
several
people.
Doing
Covid-19
tests
is
another
task
that
takes
a
lot
of
time
and
effort
from
health
care
workers,
who
could
be
arranged
for
other
tasks
if
robots
could
help.
Why
did
the
researchers
from
MIT
and
BWH
carry
out
the
studies?
To
shorten
the
social
distance
between
doctors
and
patients.
To
figure
out
the
response
of
patients
to
robotic
doctors.
To
reduce
the
risk
of
being
infected
with
coronavirus.
To
ensure
the
safety
of
patients
during
the
pandemic.
What
could
be
learned
from
the
study?
Robots
are
not
welcomed
by
patients.
Robots
will
soon
replace
doctors.
Robots
may
help
to
deal
with
Covid-19
patients.
Robots
can
operate
on
different
patients.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
best
title
for
the
text?
Strengths
And
Weaknesses
In
Robot
Care
The
Robotic
Doctor
Will
See
You
Now
The
Robots
Speed
Up
COVID-19
Testing
The
Development
Of
Robots
In
Hospitals
第二节（共
5
小题；每小题
2
分，满分
10
分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多
余选项。
Go
on
the
Safest
Trip
While
travelling,
there
are
many
safety
measures
that
all
travellers
should
take,
even
if
they’re
heading
out
a
nearby
mountain
for
a
camping
trip,
renting
a
seaside
Airbnb,
or
choosing
any
other
destination.
Advice
is
highly
needed
on
everything
from
what
to
pack
to
how
to
protect
yourself.
31
Don’t
take
the
unfamiliar
road.
While
part
of
the
joy
of
exploring
nature
is
seeing
new
and
beautiful
views,
if
your
road
trip
includes
a
hike,
stay
on
the
marked
path.
Never
give
in
to
your
curiosity
to
hike
off-trail
and
in
unfamiliar
or
unmarked
areas.
“
32
”
Warned
by
Dr.
Velimir
Petkov.
Pack
clothing.
In
the
morning,
when
you
set
out
on
your
adventure,
your
temperature
will
likely
be
comfortable.
As
the
sun
reaches
its
highest
point,
you’ll
start
to
sweat
inside
your
car.
33
That’s
why
experts
recommend
packing
everything
you
need
to
stay
comfortable,
including
clothing
for
different
temperatures.
Make
sure
you
get
enough
sleep.
While
many
people
have
difficulty
sleeping,
plenty
rest
is
necessary
before
a
long
car
ride.
“Do
not
drive
while
you
are
feeling
sleepy.
34
”
Petkov
recommended.
He
also
noted
that
even
if
you
get
the
benefits
of
seven
to
eight
hours
of
sleep,
a
little
coffee
can
never
hurt.
Protect
your
skin.
You
may
not
consider
the
sun
while
sitting
in
the
car.
The
sunlight
can
go
right
through
window
glass
and
cause
you
to
burn.
35
Bahar
Schmidt,
founder
of
Eluxit
Travel
Agency,
recommends
making
more
efforts
to
protect
your
skin
with
sunscreen
and
drugs
against
insects.
You
could
get
lost,
injured
or
both.
It
is
a
wise
choice
to
wear
strong
shoes.
You
would
never
enjoy
the
views
without
the
tips.
If
you
feel
like
a
rest,
pull
over
and
take
a
short
break.
And
at
night,
certain
areas
experience
a
sharp
drop
in
degrees.
And
mosquitoes
are
also
drawn
when
you’re
outdoors
at
night.
We
spoke
with
travel
experts
for
safety
guide
to
getting
on
the
road.
第三部分:
语言运用（共两节，满分
45
分）
第一节
完形填空（共
20
小题；每小题
1.5
分，满分
30
分）
阅读下面短文,
从短文后各题所给的
A、B、C
和
D
四个选项中,
选出可以填入空白处
的最佳选项,
并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
One
of
the
greatest
things
about
getting
out
of
the
city
is
heading
into
nature
and
really
communing
with
（与……融为一体）the
Earth
and
wildlife.
But
sometimes,
the
36
finds
its
way
into
the
city.
A
man
named
Tom
Bell
lives
in
London.
When
he
went
up
to
his
rooftop
to
take
a
break
one
day,
he
realized
he
wasn’
t
37
.
But
don’t
worry.
His
38
was
of
the
fuzzy（毛茸茸
的）variety.
A
wild
fox
had
made
its
way
up
to
the
roof
just
in
time
to
39
the
sunset.
It
was
getting
40
and
cold,
but
fortunately,
there
was
a
41
laid
out
and
ready
for
it!
The
tired
fox
just
42
to
have
a
sleep.
Tom
quickly
43
the
event
online
with
the
world
and
received
many
44
.
People
were
obviously
45
by
the
truly
unbothered
fox.
46
the
lucky
man,
the
fox
got
up
there
through
the
fire
escape.
A
man
named
Steve
even
played
it
some
music
to
make
sure
the
fox
had
the
47
evening!
In
fact,
London
is
home
to
many
foxes,
48
not
all
of
them
are
this
cute
and
beautiful.
They’ve
come
to
be
called
urban
foxes
and
they
began
to
make
themselves
49
in
London
back
in
the
1930s
when
the
city’
s
growth
started
50
their
natural
territory（领地）．And
they
live
in
cities
all
over
England.
It
is
51
that
there’s
a
population
of
about
33,000
urban
foxes
in
total
in
the
country.
Once
Tom
shared
his
52
house
guest,
others
around
London
also
started
53
photos
of
their
urban
foxes!
Well,
it’
s
probably
safe
to
say
that
we’
re
a
little
envious（羡慕的）
of
these
lucky
persons
and
their
fuzzy
visitors.
It
is
54
to
see
that
people
and
the
wilderness
can
live
together
55
.
A.
sunlight
B.
road
C.
photo
D.
wilderness
A.
awake
B.
away
C.
alone
D.
alike
A.
visitor
B.
neighbor
C.
friend
D.
audience
A.
overlook
B.
follow
C.
catch
D.
mark
A.
wet
B.
quiet
C.
risky
D.
dark
A.
map
B.
blanket
C.
garden
D.
bed
A.
wanted
B.
pretended
C.
happened
D.
continued
A.
read
B.
found
C.
shared
D.
checked
A.
likes
B.
tickets
C.
letters
D.
orders
A.
encouraged
B.
attracted
C.
confused
D.
supported
A.
Because
of
B.
According
to
C.
Instead
of
D.
Expect
for
A.
perfect
B.
eventful
C.
stormy
D.
final
A.
if
B.
and
C.
or
D.
but
A.
out
of
danger
B.
above
average
C.
on
the
site
D.
at
home
A.
enlarging
B.
entering
C.
surrounding
D.
dividing
A.
recognized
B.
remembered
C.
supposed
D.
expected
A.
imaginary
B.
trusted
C.
lifelong
D.
beloved
A.
posting
B.
collecting
C.
editing
D.
printing
A.
amusing
B.
important
C.
amazing
D.
common
A.
legally
B.
peacefully
C.
informally
D.
confidently
注意事项：
2020
学年第二学期期末调研测试卷
高一英语
第
II
卷
第
II
卷共
2
页,用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将答案写在答题纸上，答在试题卷上无效。
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分
45
分）
第二节
（共
10
小题；每小题
1.5
分,
满分
15
分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1
个单词）或括号中单词的正确形式。
Humans
have
been
eager
to
travel
to
space
to
learn
more
about
the
universe.
They
make
diverse
kinds
of
56
(vehicle)
to
carry
brave
people
into
space
to
explore
the
universe.
On
October
1957,
the
Sputnik
I
satellite
57
(launch)
by
the
USSR
and
successfully
orbited
around
the
Earth.
Afterwards,
the
USSR
focused
on
58
(send)
people
into
space,
and
on
12
April
1961,
Yuri
Gagarin
became
the
first
person
in
the
world
59
(go)
into
space.
Over
eight
years
later,
American
astronaut
Neil
Armstrong
stepped
onto
the
moon.
Despite
the
huge
successes,
exploring
the
universe
can
be
dangerous
and
60
(challenge).
Some
astronauts
even
lost
their
lives
during
their
missions
to
the
space.
61
it
is
risky,
people
will
continue
to
explore
the
final
frontier.
China’s
space
programme
started
62
(late)
than
those
of
Russia
and
the
US,
but
it
has
made
rapid
progress
in
a
short
time.
China
became
the
third
country
in
the
world
to
63
(independent)
send
humans
into
space
in
2003,
64
Yang
Liwei
successfully
orbited
Earth
in
the
Shenzhou
5
spacecraft.
Since
then,
China
has
made
65
series
of
achievements
in
the
field
of
space
technology.
It’s
hoped
that
future
discoveries
will
make
us
understand
how
the
universe
began
and
also
help
us
survive
well
into
the
future.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分
40
分）
第一节：话题微写作（满分
15
分）
将下面
5
个句子按括号内要求翻译并连成一篇微作文。
1.
作为中国最有意义的传统节日之一，元宵节在农历一月的
15
号。（significant）
2.
不论我们多么忙碌，我们都会聚集在一起庆祝。（no
matter）
3.
通常情况下，我们会以多种形式来庆祝，从猜字谜到放烟花等。（typical;
range
from...to...)
4.
在那天，人们欣赏着各处的灯笼，享受着节日的轻松氛围。（现在分词作状语)
5.
如今,
随着商家利用人们庆祝节日，节日变得越来越商业化。（with
复合结构；take
advantage
of)
第二节：应用文写作（满分
25
分）
假定你是李华，你的外籍好友
Henry
学习汉语遇到困难，给你发来一封邮件，想让你
为他推荐一款学习汉语的
APP。请你回信，内容包括：
1.
推荐名称（名称可自拟）；
2.
推荐理由；
3.
表达祝愿。
注意：
1.
词数
80
左右；
2.
可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。湖州市2020学年第二学期期末调研卷
高
一
英
语
（参考答案及评分标准）
第一部分：听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1.
C
2.
A
3.
B
4.
C
5.
A
6.
B
7.
C
8.
A
9.
A
10.
C
11.
A
12.
C
13.
B
14.
C
15.
A
16.
B
17.
C
18.
B
19.B
20.
A
第二部分：阅读理解（满分35分）
21.
D
22.
C
23.
A
24.
B
25.
C
26.
B
27.
D
28.
B
29.
C
30.
B
31.
G
32.
A
33.
E
34.
D
35.
F
第三部分：语言运用（每小题1.5分，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空
36.
D
37.
C
38.
A
39.
C
40.
D
41.
B
42.
A
43.
C
44.
A
45.B
46.
B
47.
A
48.
D
49.
D
50.
B
51.
C
52.
D
53.
A
54.
C
55.
B
第二节
56.
vehicles
57.
was
launched
58.
sending
59.
to
go
60.
challenging
61.
Though/Although
62.
later
63.
independently
64.
when
65.
a
第四部分：写作
第一节：话题微写作（满分15分）
①As
one
of
the
most
significant
festivals
in
China,
the
Lantern
Festival
falls/is
on
the
15th
of
the
first
lunar
month.②No
matter
how
busy
we
are,
we
will
gather
and
celebrate
it
together.
③It
is
typical
of
us
to
celebrate
it
in
different
activities,
ranging
from
guessing
riddles
to
setting
off
fireworks.
④On
that
day
people
admire
the
lanterns
here
and
there,
enjoying
the
relaxing
atmosphere.
⑤These
days,
with
businesses
taking
advantage
of
the
celebrations,
festivals
are
becoming
more
and
more
commercial.
每句评分标准：
1.
结构正确，信息完整，给满分（3分）；
2.
结构正确，信息基本完整，但有一个或两个拼写错误（或时态错误），给2分；
3.
结构正确，信息有遗漏，给2分；
4.
结构不正确，但写出部分重要信息（词汇），给1分；
（用不同于参考答案的译文，但意思准确，给满分）
第二节：应用文写作（满分25分）
One
possible
version:
Dear
Henry,
Knowing
that
you
are
faced
with
some
difficulties
in
Chinese
learning,
I’d
like
to
recommend
an
app
named
Aha
Chinese,
which
enjoys
great
popularity.
Aha
Chinese
is
an
amazing
app,
which
has
an
offline
mode,
so
you
don’t
need
an
Internet
connection.
Besides,
equipped
with
abundant
examples,
this
app
will
give
you
a
glimpse
of
local
expressions.
Most
importantly,
this
app
combines
education
and
recreation,
thus
keeping
boredom
away
and
getting
you
motivated.
I
am
convinced
that
you
are
bound
to
achieve
language
goals
with
it.
Yours,
Li
Hua
1、评分标准：
1.
本题总分为25分，按五个档次给分。
2.
评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，
确定或调整档次，最后给分。
?
3.
词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。?
4.
评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
?
5.
拼写标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程序予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
?
6.
如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
2、内容要点：
1.
推荐名称；
2.
推荐理由；
3.
表达祝愿。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档：（21~25分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档：（16~20分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达
基本清楚。
第三档：（11~15分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，尚能达意。
第二档：（6~10分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响表达意思。
第一档：（1~5分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子可懂。
3、说明：
1.
内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2.
对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
