乐山市高中2023届教学质量检测
英语参考答案及评分意见
2021.7
第Ⅰ卷（共100分）
第一部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5CAABC
6-10ACBCA
11-15BCCCB
16-20ACABC
第二部分
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21-25ABACA
26-30BBDAB
31-35AAABD
第二节（共
5
小题；每小题
2，满分10）
36-40
AEGFB
第三部分
第一节（共
20
小题；每小题
1.5
分，满分
30
分）
41-45BBCAD
46-50CACDB
51-55
BCADB
56-60DADBC
第Ⅱ卷（共
50
分）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61.
Although/Though/While
62.
surprisingly
63.published
64.
differ
65.wider
66.
between
67.lifestyles
68.
which
69.haver
educed
70.those
第四部分
第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
Last
summer
vacation,
as
an
unexpected
job
came
up
for
my
parents,
I
had
to
travel
alone
∧visit
to
my
grandparents.
I
was
wondering
how
the
trip
will
go.
On
the
day
of
the
trip,
my
mom
would
prepared
everything
for
me
and
gave
me
a
hour
lesson
on
being
careful
and
stay
away
from
an
staying
strangers.
She
asked
me
to
phone
her
at
every
station
which
I
went
through.
Throughout
the
that
journey,
I
read
my
book
and
did
not
say
many
to
anyone
asking
me
question.
I
kept
calling
for
much
questions
her
at
every
station.
Finally,
I
reached
my
destination
and
safely
and
sound.
I
was
very
happy
safe
to
complete
my
first
trip
alone
but
enjoyed
it.
and
第二节
书面表达（满分25分）
评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章所表达的要点和语言质量初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于80或多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性以及上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数，降低一个档次。
内容要点
活动的基本情况（如时间、地点、参展作品等）；
你印象最深刻的作品；
你对这类活动的看法。
（三）各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21~25
分）：完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
一语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档（16~20
分）：完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第三档（1l~15
分）：基本完成了试题规定的任务，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
一虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6~10
分）：未适当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
一语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
一较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1~5
分）：未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
一语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
一缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
不得分（0
分）：未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
五．One
possible
version:
Dear
Clara,
I
have
just
attended
an
art
exhibition
held
by
our
school
and
I
can’t
wait
to
share
with
you
the
wonderful
activity.
This
exhibition
was
held
on
the
school
playground
yesterday.
More
than
100
pieces
of
artworks
were
displayed.
One
particular
painting
left
me
the
deepest
impression.
It
described
a
boy
looking
into
the
blue
night
sky
with
warm
stars
shinning,
which
filled
me
with
warmth
and
endless
imagination.
Personally,
I
like
this
kind
of
activity
very
much,
as
it
always
leads
us
out
of
daily
routines
and
reminds
us
of
a
vivid
world
full
of
life.
How
about
your
opinion?
I’m
looking
forward
to
hearing
from
you.
Yours,
Li
Hua
附：听力原文
(Text
1)
M:
Mary,
I’m
going
to
a
bar
with
some
friends.
Do
you
want
to
join
us?
W:
Thanks,
but
I
just
want
to
go
for
a
walk
in
the
park.
M:
Oh,
then
you
need
to
pass
by
the
store.
Could
you
get
me
some
chocolate
bars?
(Text
2)
W:
Hi,
listen,
I‘m
at
Coombe
Bissett.
I'
m
asked
to
paint
40
on
the
road
surface,
but
the
sign
at
the
side
of
the
road
says
the
speed
limit
is
30.
I’m
confused.
M:
Let
me
check.
Oh,
it
should
be
30
miles/hour.
(Text
3)
M:
Excuse
me.
Could
you
tell
me
when
the
next
train
to
New
York
will
leave?
W:
Sorry,
I
don’t
know.
You
can
check
at
the
information
counter.
It’s
right
down
the
hall.
M:
Thank
you.
(Text
4)
M:
I’ve
just
been
offered
two
jobs
just
now.
W:
Congratulations!
Which
one
are
you
going
to
take?
M:
Thanks.
I
haven’t
decided
yet.
(Text
5)
W:
Hey,
John,
how
do
you
usually
go
home?
M:
By
train
mostly.
It
takes
me
one
hour
and
a
half.
Then
I
have
to
take
a
bus,
which
drives
me
crazy.
So
crowded
and
it
costs
me
half
an
hour.
(Text6)
M:
Honey,
I’m
thinking
about
renting
a
movie
for
tonight’s
party,
and
I
want
to
know
what
kind
of
movies
you
like.
W:
Okay.
What
kind
of
movies
do
you
have
in
mind?
M:
Well,
what
about
action
movies?
W:
I
don't
think
so.
Too
much
violence.
M:
Then
comedies?
W:
Great.
W:
Fine.
Well,
what
do
you
think
of
horror
movies
or
love
ones?
W:
Uh...
I’m
not
really
into
horror
movies,
but
love
stories
are
often
fun
to
watch.
M:
Okay.
I'll
go
to
the
video
store
and
see
what
I
can
find.
W:
I’ll
be
here
preparing
dishes.
(Text7)
W:
So
honey,
what
do
you
think
of
this
red
sofa
for
the
living
room?
It
has
a
great
color.
M:
Yes,
the
color
is
great,
but
it's
kind
of
big.
How
about
the
green
one?
It
is
the
right
size.
W:
The
green
color
is
too
dark.
It
won't
match
with
our
coffee
table
and
bookshelf.
M:
OK,
what
about
this
one?
It
will
brighten
up
the
living
room.
W:
Oh,
no!
All
those
blue
and
orange
diamonds!
It's
too
bright.
It'll
give
me
a
headache
just
looking
at
it.
I'd
rather
take
the
grey
one
in
the
corner.
(Text8)
M:
Good
evening,
ma’am.
Did
you
ring
for
service?
What
can
I
do
for
you?
W:
Yes.
The
room
is
too
dark.
Please
get
me
a
brighter
light.
M:
Certainly.
Do
you
mind
if
I
move
your
things?
W:
Oh,
no.
Go
ahead.
M:
Thank
you.
How
is
the
light
now?
W:
Much
better.
Thanks.
M:
You’re
welcome.
And
is
there
anything
else?
W:
Ah,
yes,
I
feel
rather
cold
when
I
sleep.
Can
you
turn
off
the
air
conditioning?
M:
(Checks)
The
air
conditioning
is
already
off,
ma'am.
W:
Maybe
I’m
getting
a
cold.
M:
Would
you
like
an
extra
blanket?
W:
OK.
And
would
you
please
get
me
some
hot
water,
too?
I
think
I
need
to
take
some
medicine.
M:
Certainly.
Here
is
a
blanket.
and
hot
water
for
you.
Anything
else?
W:
No,
thanks.
M:
Good
night,
ma’am.
(Text9)
M:
So,
you’ve
applied
for
Saturday
position,
right?
W:
Yes,
I
have.
M:
Can
you
tell
me
what
made
you
reply
to
our
job
offer?
W:
Well,
I
was
looking
for
a
part-time
job
to
help
me
through
college.
M:
Do
you
know
exactly
what
you
would
be
doing
as
a
shop
assistant?
W:
Well,
I
imagine
I
would
be
preparing
the
shop
for
business,
helping
shoppers,
and
keeping
a
check
on
the
supplies
in
the
store.
M:
What
sort
of
student
do
you
regard
yourself
as?
W:
I
suppose
I’m
a
reasonable
student.
I
passed
most
of
my
exams,
and
I
enjoy
studying
subjects
that
interest
me.
M:
Now,
do
you
have
any
questions
for
me
about
the
job?
W:
Yes,
could
you
tell
me
what
hours
I’d
have
to
work?
M:
We
open
at
9:00.
But
you
would
be
expected
to
arrive
at
8:30.
We
close
at
6:00
p.m,
and
you
would
be
able
to
leave
10
minutes
later.
I
think
I
have
asked
you
everything
I
wanted
to.
Thank
you
for
coming
along
to
the
interview.
(Text10)
W:
Whenever
anyone
measures
educational
success,
East
Asian
countries
are
always
top
scorers.
But
in
a
recent
ranking
list,
a
European
country,
Finland,
was
top
of
the
class.
South
Korea
was
still
in
second
place,
though.
Britain
was
at
number
6.
What
is
the
secret
of
Finland
and
South
Korea's
success?
In
South
Korea
the
school
day
is
long---
typically
8
hours,
followed
by
hours
of
private
tutoring
in
the
evenings.
All
this
leaves
South
Korean
students
so
tired.
Finnish
children
spend
the
least
time
in
class
in
the
developed
world,
often
finishing
just
after
lunch,
with
about
one
hour
of
homework
a
day.
Private
tuition
is
uncommon.
The
British
school
day
is
quite
long
in
comparison,
around
6
hours,
and
secondary
school
pupils
do
2
or
3
hours
of
self-study
a
night.
The
South
Korean
education
system,
is
competitive.
Finnish
education
is
far
less
fierce.
South
Korea
and
Finland
both
do
well
yet,
their
education
systems
are
so
different.
So
what
lessons
can
Britain
learn
from
these
two
countries?
Well,
there
are
some
similarities
in
Asia
and
Finland.
In
those
countries,
teachers
have
high
status
in
society,
and
education
is
very
highly
valued.
Those
attitudes
can’t
change
quickly.
But
it
can
be
done.
高一英语答案第1页（共4页）
高一英语答案第1页（共4页）机密★启用前[考试时间：2021年7月4日上午8：30—10：30]
乐山市高中2023届教学质量检测
英
语
（本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分
听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案
转涂到答题卡上
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.
5分，满分7.
5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段
对话仅读一遍。
例：
How
much
is
the
shirt?
A.
?19.
15.
B.
?9.
15.
C,
?9.
18.
答案是B。
1.
Where
does
the
woman
want
to
go?
A.
To
a
bar.
B.
To
a
store.
C.
To
a
park.
2.
What
is
the
speed
limit
at
Coombe
Bissset?
A.
30
miles/hour.
B.
40
miles/hour.
C.
13
miles/hour.
3.
What's
the
man
going
to
do?
A.
Go
to
the
information
counter.
B.
Take
a
bus
to
leave
New
York,
C.
Check
the
price
of
the
ticket.
4.
What
do
we
learn
about
the
man?
A.
He
left
his
job.
B.
He
has
got
two
job
offers.
C.
He's
doing
a
part-time
job.
5.
How
long
does
it
take
John
to
get
home?
A.
One
hour.
B.
One
hour
and
a
half.
C.
Two
hours.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.
5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个
小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.
What
kind
of
movies
does
the
woman
like?
A.
Comedies
and
love
stories.
B.
Action
movies
and
comedies.
C,
Horror
movies
and
love
stories.
7.
Where
does
the
conversation
probably
take
place?
A.
In
a
cinema.
B.
In
a
video
store.
C.
At
home.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.
What
color
sofa
does
the
woman
first
suggest?
A.
Grey.
B.
Red.
C.
Orange.
9.
Why
is
the
woman
dissatisfied
with
the
green
sofa?
A.
It
is
too
bright.
B.
It
is
not
the
right
size.
C.
It
won't
go
with
other
furniture.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.
What
does
the
woman
first
complain
about?
A.
The
light.
B.
The
air
conditioning.
C.
The
bed.
11.
What
does
the
man
offer
to
do
for
the
woman?
A.
Get
her
some
water,
B,
Bring
her
a
blanket.
C.
Buy
her
some
medicine.
12.
What
do
we
know
can
we
say
about
the
man?
A.
He's
anxious.
B.
He's
generous.
C.
He's
patient.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.
Why
does
the
woman
need
the
job?
A.
To
learn
to
start
a
business,
B.
To
gain
some
work
experience.
C.
To
support
herself
through
college.
14.
What
will
the
woman
work
as
if
she
gets
the
job?
A.
Cashier.
B.
Manager.
C.
Shop
assistant.
15.
How
is
the
woman's
performance
at
school?
A.
Poor.
B.
Average.
C.
Excellent.
16.
What
will
be
the
woman's
working
hours
if
she
gets
the
job?
A.
8：30
a.
m.
一
6:10
p.
m.
B.
9：00
a.
m.
一
6
：00
p.
m.
C.
8
：30
a.
m.
一
10
：00
p.
m.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17,
Which
country
comes
first
in
a
recent
ranking
list?
A.
Britain.
B.
South
Korea.
C.
Finland.
18.
What
can
we
know
about
Finnish
education?
A.
Children
have
one
hour
of
homework
a
day.
B.
The
students
often
feel
tired.
C.
Private
tuition
is
common.
19.
How
long
is
the
school
day
in
Britain?
A.
Around
four
hours.
B.
Around
six
hours.
C.
Around
eight
hours.
20.
What
should
Britain
learn
from
Finland
and
South
Korea?
A.
To
make
the
school
day
long.
B.
To
make
students
do
less
homework
.
C.
To
pay
more
respect
to
teachers
and
education.
第二部分
阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
Fine
art
fairs
（艺术博览会）are
the
trend
of
the
21st
century,
with
new
art
and
antique
（古玩）fairs
and
festivals
springing
up
in
diverse
parts
of
the
world.
Here
is
a
list
of
four
noteworthy
art
fairs.
Art
Basel,
Basel,
Switzerland
The
granddaddy
of
art
fairs,
Art
Basel,
was
established
in
1970
by
a
group
of
local
art
gallerists
and
is
the
biggest
contemporary
art
fair
in
the
world.
Art
Basel
takes
place
over
a
5-day
period
each
June
in
Basel,
Switzerland.
The
high
cost
of
renting
space
for
gallery
owners
is
offset
（抵消）by
the
huge
attendance
at
the
fair.
For
example
in
2010,
about
60,000
visitors
attended
Art
Basel.
Frieze
Art
Fair,
London
“Frieze
Art
Fair
was
established
in
2003
and
is
one
of
the
few
fairs
to
focus
only
on
contemporary
art
and
living
artists.
v
"The
fair
takes
place
every
October
in
Regent's
Park,
London.
It
features
over
170
of
the
most
exciting
contemporary
art
galleries
in
the
world.
”
In
addition
to
the
fair
which
began
in
2003,
the
fair
owners
Matthew
Slotover
and
Amanda
Sharp
publish
Frieze,
an
international
art
magazine
established
in
1991
and
devoted
to
contemporary
art.
TEFAF
Maastricht,
the
Netherlands
Established
in
1975
as
The
Pictura
Fine
Art
Fair,
and
renamed
The
European
Fine
Art
Foundation
（TEFAF）
,
Maastricht
in
1996,
the
fair
includes
260
of
the
world's
most
famous
art
and
antique
dealers
from
16
countries.
The
24th
edition
of
the
TEFAF
fair
held
March
18
—
27,
2011
featured
260
dealers
exhibiting
approximately
30,
000
artworks
and
antiques
with
an
overall
value
of
$
US
1.
4
billion.
ARCO
Madrid
was
established
in
1982
and
is
one
of
Europe's
leading
and
popular
art
fairs.
In
addition
to
the
exhibiting
galleries
（in
2011,
197
international
art
galleries
participated）
,
a
series
of
lectures
and
specially
focused
exhibitions
take
place.
21.
How
does
Art
Basel
cover
the
expense
of
renting
space?
A.
By
selling
tickets.
B.
By
selling
expensive
exhibits.
C.
By
donation
from
dealers.
D.
By
support
from
the
government.
22.
The
owners
of
Frieze
Art
Fair
are
also
in
charge
of.
A.
170
living
artists.
B.
An
international
art
magazine.
C.
30,000
artworks
and
antiques.
D.
A
series
of
lectures.
23.
Which
of
the
following
has
the
longest
history?
A.
Art
Basel
B.
Frieze
Art
Fair
C.
TEFAF
D.
ARCO
B
In
2002,
young
Elon
Musk
tried
unsuccessfully
to
buy
Russian
rockets
to
help
him
send
mice
to
Mars
and
back.
Afterwards,
the
young
millionaire
decided
to
build
his
own
rockets.
Musk
went
to
Southern
California
and
started
hiring
people
to
help
bring
his
dream
to
life.
In
a
very
short
time,
and
despite
some
failures,
his
company
SpaceX
launched
Falcon
1,
the
first
successful
privately-built
liquid
fuel
rocket,
into
Earth's
orbit
in
2008.
As
the
first
Falcon
rocket
began
testing,
development
was
already
underway
for
the
Falcon
9.
This
much
larger
rocket,
which
uses
nine
engines
to
lift
heavy
payloads
（有效载
荷）into
orbit,
is
engineered
to
return
to
Earth,
ready
to
be
reused
for
another
flight.
For
Musk,
space
is
the
final
destination.
To
help
people
get
there,
his
company
Neuralink
is
developing
devices
that
will
link
people's
brains
with
computers.
A
similar
device
has
been
developed
at
the
University
of
Utah.
It
consists
of
a
chip
（芯片）with
256
threads
（线程）that
is
placed
between
a
person's
skin
and
brain.
The
threads
attach
directly
to
brain
tissue
（脑组织）.Patients
who
have
the
device
are
able
to
use
only
their
minds
to
communicate
with
one
another
through
computers.
Neuralink's
chips
will
have
about
1,000
threads.
A
robot
developed
by
the
company
will
place
up
to
ten
chips
under
a
person's
skin.
The
chips
will
communicate
without
wires
but
with
a
tiny
device
that
will
be
worn
behind
the
person's
ear.
That
device,
in
turn,
will
communicate
with
computers.
The
primary
market
for
the
technology
will
be
for
people
that,
because
of
injuries
or
birth
defects,
cannot
control
their
hands
and
arms.
With
Neuralink^
product,
they'll
be
able
to
mentally
command
a
computer
to
type
messages
for
them
or
carry
out
other
tasks.
24.
According
to
this
article,
what
was
the
first
Falcon
1
able
to
do?
A.
Launch
big
satellites.
B.
Reach
distant
moons.
C.
Move
around
our
planet.
D.
Study
the
universe.
25.
What
does
the
article
explain
about
Neuralink's
chips?
A.
How
they'll
be
set
up.
B.
What
safety
features
they'll
have.
C.
How
much
money
they'll
earn.
D.
Where
they'll
be
produced.
26.
According
to
this
article,
who
is
Neuralink
going
to
market
its
product
to
first?
A.
Those
who
own
great
wealth.
B.
Those
who
are
physically
disabled.
C.
Those
who
travel
internationally.
D.
Those
who
do
research
on
plants.
27.
In
which
publication
is
this
article
most
likely
to
appear?
A.
The
Journal
of
Environmental
Studies.
B.
Advances
in
Business
and
Technology.
C.
Digest
of
Fashion
and
Entertainment
News,
D.
Consumer's
Guide
to
Outdoor
Recreation.
C
Kids
often
admire
well-known
celebrities,
putting
posters
of
their
favorite
musicians,
movie
stars
and
athletes
on
their
bedroom
walls.
But
rarely
does
a
young
person
get
to
meet
or
talk
to
their
idol.
Yet
for
one
young
tennis
player
-
Coco
Gauff
-
her
chance
to
do
just
that
happened
in
an
amazing
way!
Coco
was
born
on
March
13,
2004.
At
the
age
of
4,
she
developed
an
interest
in
tennis
after
watching
Venus
Williams
win
the
Australian
Open
on
TV.
Coco
began
playing
at
7
and
showed
a
real
talent
for
the
sport.
When
young
Coco
turned
10,
she
began
training
at
a
tennis
centre
run
by
Venus's
coach,
Patrick
Mouratoglou.
He
still
remembers
the
first
time
he
met
Coco.
He
says,
“She
impressed
me
with
her
determination
and
fighting
spirit.
”
Convinced
of
her
talent,
Mouratoglou
sponsored
（资助）Coco
to
attend
his
academy
in
France.
While
she
was
preparing
to
go
to
the
academy
in
2019,
she
received
a
call
that
would
change
her
plans
and
her
life!
Wimbledon
（温布尔顿网球比赛）organizers
called
and
offered
Gauff
entry
to
the
tournament
（联赛）as
a
wildcard
（外卡选手）.This
made
her
one
of
the
youngest
players
to
ever
qualify.
Before
she
knew
it,
she
was
on
her
way
to
London.
After
arriving,
she
received
another
surprise.
For
her
Wimbledon
debut
（首次登场），she
would
be
playing
her
lifelong
hero,
Venus
Williams!
The
tennis
legend
is
24
years
older
than
Gauff.
The
world
watched
with
amazement
as
young
Gauff
beat
Venus
in
two
straight
sets!
Afterwards,
Gauff
shook
Venus's
hand,
thanked
her
and
said,
“I
wouldn't
be
here
if
it
wasn't
for
you.
"
After
the
match,
Venus
said
of
Gauff,
“I
think
the
sky
is
the
limit；
it
really
is.
"
Venus
said,
“I
feel
honored
that
I
was
on
her
wall
[as
a
poster]
at
some
point
in
her
life.
Soon
she
will
be
on
other
girls'
walls.
It's
nice
because
it
will
keep
going
from
the
next
generation
to
the
next
generation.
"
28.
What
can
we
learn
about
Coco
from
the
text?
A.
She
took
up
tennis
as
career
at
the
age
of
4.
B.
She
went
to
academy
at
the
age
of
7.
C.
She
had
played
against
William
before
10.
D.
She
beat
William
at
the
age
of
15.
29.
Which
of
the
following
can
best
describe
Coco?
A.
Talented
and
modest.
B.
Lucky
and
responsible.
C.
Proud
and
hard-working.
D.
Respectful
and
cheerful.
30.
What
can
we
infer
from
Venus's
words?
A.
Coco
had
reached
her
limits.
B.
Coco
would
rise
to
fame
after
the
match.
C.
Coco's
poster
would
be
passed
on.
D.
Coco
had
once
visited
her
home.
31.
What
can
be
a
suitable
title
for
the
text
?
A.
Coco
Gauff
：
Tennis's
Next
Superstar.
B.
Coco
Gauff
：
A
Poster
on
the
Wall.
C.
What
Posters
Mean
to
a
Young
Girl.
D.
The
Significance
of
Admiring
an
Idol.
D
A
male
tiger
was
rescued
in
Mishan
city,
Northeast
China's
Heilongjiang
province,
on
Friday.
A
tiger
was
recently
seen
on
the
Siner
Russian
border
（边界），but
there
is
no
evidence
to
suggest
this
is
the
same
tiger
or
that
it
had
lost
its
way
from
Russia.
Wherever
it
may
have
come
from,
cross-border
protection
of
endangered
species
is
a
problem.
According
to
Ma
Jianzhang,
a
senior
wild
animal
researcher
in
China,
tigers
know
no
borders,
which
have
been
built
to
stop
humans
from
illegally
crossing
over.
However,
these
borders
also
stop
the
free
movement
of
tigers,
thus
preventing
their
breeding
（繁殖）
and
exchange
of
genes.
The
Sino-Russian
border
also
comes
in
the
way
of
protecting
tigers
in
the
region.
Data
show
about
500
to
550
Siberian
tigers,
or
over
90
percent
of
the
species,
live
in
the
wild
in
Russia;
27
live
in
the
wild
in
China,
and
50
in
the
border
region.
Sometimes
tigers
lose
their
way
across
the
border
and
that
is
hindering
（妨碍）efforts
to
stop
illegal
hunting
and
protecting
them.
Fortunately,
both
China
and
Russia
have
realized
this
problem
and
are
working
toward
solving
it.
As
early
as
2010,
the
two
countries
established
a
cross-border
protection
network
aimed
at
strengthening
communication
on
protecting
tigers
in
the
northeast.
The
countries
have
also
held
anti-poaching
（反偷猎）activities
together.
In
2019,
two
national
parks
from
the
two
countries
signed
a
three-year
deal
to
share
research
data
on
tigers,
greatly
improving
the
living
conditions
of
Siberian
tigers
in
the
wild.
However,
much
more
needs
to
be
done
to
protect
the
species.
It
is
necessary
to
combine
the
tiger
protection
areas
in
the
two
countries.
That
will
require
greater
efforts
from
both
sides
and
some
difficulties
might
remain
even
then.
Fortunately,
both
countries
have
been
taking
effective
measures
to
provide
the
endangered
species
a
better
home.
32.
What's
the
original
purpose
of
setting
up
the
Sino-Russian
borders?
A.
To
ban
people
from
illegal
crossings.
B.
To
help
protect
tigers
in
the
region.
C.
To
protect
tigers
from
losing
their
way.
D.
To
stop
tigers'
breeding
and
exchange
of
genes.
33.
What
does
the
underlined
phrase
“comes
in
the
way
of”
probably
mean?
A.
keeps
from.
B.
is
on
the
way
to
C.
is
aimed
at
D.
keeps
up
34.
What
is
the
focus
of
Paragraph
4
?
A.
Recent
studies
and
researches
on
tigers.
B.
Joint
efforts
by
China
and
Russia
to
protect
tigers.
C.
The
possible
effects
of
establishing
a
network.
D.
Reasons
for
improving
the
living
conditions
of
tigers.
35.
What's
the
author's
purpose
in
writing
the
text?
A.
To
inform
the
possible
dangers
of
tiger
protection.
B.
To
cover
the
news
about
a
missing
tiger
on
the
border.
C.
To
put
forward
suggestions
on
finding
the
missing
tiger.
D.
To
report
the
problems
and
measures
of
cross-border
tiger
protection.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Every
culture
has
set
rules
about
how
people
should
act.
Patterns
of
good
behavior,
or
manners,
show
respect
and
care
for
others.
36
Greeting
people
cheerfully
is
almost
always
considered
polite.
37
For
example,
when
you
enter
a
store
in
France,
you
should
always
greet
the
person
working
there.
Other
cultures
also
value
greeting
people.
But
of
course
the
greetings
vary
as
people
speak
different
languages.
38
It
creates
and
keeps
the
harmony
（和谐）of
human
relationships?
and
is
used
as
greetings,
encouragement
and
so
on.
In
American
society
people
usually
widely
use
praise
and
compliments,
which
plays
an
important
role
in
communication.
The
right
answer
to
other's
praise
and
compliments
is
“Thank
you”.
However,
refusing
a
compliment
is
accepted
and
even
approved
of
in
China.
Some
of
the
biggest
cultural
differences
have
to
do
with
table
manners.
39
That
means
chewing
with
your
mouth
closed
and
not
slurping
（出声地喝）your
soup.
The
same
goes
for
burping
（打嗝）.
But
in
parts
of
Asia,
slurping
shows
that
you
are
enjoying
your
meal.
And
burping
is
a
sign
of
being
full
and
content.
40
Saying
“please"
and
"thank
you,
“
for
example,
is
almost
always
polite.
If
you
show
appreciation
and
try
to
follow
local
customs,
people
will
generally
respond
well.
Showing
kindness
can
bring
people
together,
no
matter
what
culture
they
come
from.
A.
Yet
the
details
of
how
to
express
respect
vary.
B.
Yet
there
are
also
similar
points
across
cultures.
C.
Diversity
（多样化）exists
when
it
comes
to
the
choice
of
food.
D.
Attitudes
to
praise
and
compliments
can
be
different.
E.
But
it's
more
important
in
some
cultures
than
others.
F.
It's
polite
to
eat
as
quietly
as
possible
In
North
America.
G.
Praise
and
compliments
is
a
kind
of
communicative
action.
第三部分
英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节
完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空
白处的最佳选项。
Taking
back
my
life
I
received
a
private
message
on
Facebook.
It
began
harmlessly
enough：
"Hey,
girl.
Wanted
to
invite
you
to
41
my
next
challenge
group---
we'll
be
focusing
on
fitting
in
30
minutes.”
It
was
all
becoming
too
much.
Facebook
was
42
my
life?
not
me.
But
what
killed
Facebook
for
me
was
when
I
43
a
photo
and
five
minutes
later
my
four—year—old
son
asked
me
how
many
“likes“
it
had
got.
His
question
was
a
44
call.
“Likes“
are
signs
of
45
.
I
had
forgotten
that
it
need
to
come
from
within
and
I
had
46
set
my
son
a
bad
example.
At
that
moment,
I
set
up
my
mind
to
47
my
Facebook
account.
I'd
been
in
the
48
of
checking
Facebook
many
times
a
day,
so
I
had
to
49
some
new
habits.
I
carried
a
novel,
rediscovered
knitting
（针织）and
took
yoga
classes.
I
started
to
remember
a
few
things.
I
have
friends
who
will
help
me
out
when
I'm
in
50
.
Our
son
is
happy
and
51
.
And
we
are
very
lucky
to
be
able
to
52
two
vacations
a
year.
I
stopped
looking
at
the
world
through
my
cellphone.
I
felt
completely
53
in
the
moment.
The
break
54
me
feeling
better
about
my
life.
After
a
few
weeks,
I
55
Facebook.
Now
I
keep
my
56
on
the
photos
of
my
friends'
kids
growing
up
and
57
how
social
media
allows
me
to
keep
in
touch
with
family
58
and
wide.
I
am
59
with
the
desire
to
post
updates.
It
is
not
an
60
anymore.
41.
A.
celebrate
B.
join
C.
check
D.
hold
42.
A.
developing
B.
running
C.
ruining
D.
improving
43.
A.
described
B.
took
C.
posted
D.
saw
44.
A.
wake-up
B.
warm-up
C.
mind-up
D.
hold-up
45.
A.
reality
B.
power
C.
identity
D.
acceptance
46.
A.
unlikely
B.
impossibly
C.
unknowingly
D.
unusually
47.
A.
close
B.
fix
C.
lose
D.
load
48.
A.
form
B.
shape
C.
habit
D.
way
49.
A.
run
out
B.
result
from
C.
make
use
of
D.
come
up
with
50.
A.
class
B.
trouble
C.
silence
D.
advance
51.
A.
ordinary
B.
healthy
C.
weak
D.
famous
52.
A.
imagine
B.
waste
C.
afford
D.
miss
53.
A.
present
B.
lost
C.
absent
D.
blank
54.
A.
blocked
B.
encouraged
C.
forced
D.
left
55.
A.
broke
through
B.
returned
to
C.
ended
up
D.
dated
from
56.
A.
impression
B.
opinion
C.
balance
D.
eyes
57.
A.
value
B.
predict
C.
examine
D.
search
58.
A.
heavy
B.
high
C.
long
D.
far
59.
A.
more
often
B.
no
longer
C.
right
now
D.
once
in
a
while
60.
A.
dream
B.
doubt
C.
addiction
D.
inspiration
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
A
25-year-old
American
with
a
university
degree
can
expect
to
live
longer
than
those
who
dropped
out
of
high
school.
61
the
average
American's
expected
span
has
been
flat
in
recent
years,
and
62
（surprising）
even
fell
between
2015
and
2017,
that
of
the
one-
third
with
a
bachelor's
degree
has
continued
to
lengthen.
This
difference
is
growing,
according
to
the
new
research
63
（publish）
in
the
National
Academy
of
Sciences.
Scientists
found
that
the
life
spans
（寿命）of
those
with
and
without
a
bachelor's
degree
started
to
64
（different）
in
the
1990s
and
2000s.
This
gap
grew
even
65
（wide）
in
the
2010s.
What
is
the
link
66
schooling
and
longevity?
Some
argue
that
better-educated
people
develop
various
healthier
67
（lifestyle）
：
each
additional
year
of
study
reduces
the
chances
of
being
a
smoker
and
of
being
overweight.
The
better-educated
earn
more,
68
in
turn
is
associated
with
greater
health.
Researchers
argue
that
changes
in
labour
markets
69
（reduce）
the
supply
of
well-
paid
jobs
for
70
（that）
without
a
degree
in
the
past
few
years.
This
may
be
contributing
to
higher
rates
of
alcohol
and
drug
use,
suicide
and
other
"deaths
of
despair"
.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节
短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共
有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（A）,并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均只限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Last
summer
vacation,
as
an
unexpected
job
came
up
for
my
parents,
I
had
to
travel
alone
visit
my
grandparents.
I
was
wondering
how
the
trip
will
go.
On
the
day
of
the
trip,
my
mom
prepared
everything
for
me
and
gave
me
a
hour's
lesson
on
being
careful
and
stay
away
from
strangers.
She
asked
me
to
phone
her
at
every
station
which
I
went
through.
Throughout
the
journey,
I
read
my
book
and
did
not
say
many
to
anyone
asking
me
question.
I
kept
calling
for
her
at
every
station.
Finally,
I
reached
my
destination
safely
and
sound.
I
was
very
happy
to
have
completed
my
first
trip
alone
but
enjoyed
it.
第二节
书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，是新华中学高一学生。你校最近举办了一场学生美术作品展，请你给美
国笔友Clara写一封邮件，介绍该活动。邮件内容包括：
1.活动的基本情况（如时间、地点、参展作品等）；
2.你印象最深刻的作品；
3.你对这类活动的看法。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.开头和结尾已为你写好。
Dear
Clara,
I
have
just
attended
an
art
exhibition
held
by
our
school
and
I
can't
wait
to
share
with
you
the
wonderful
activity.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
Yours,
Li
Hua
